I am in the middle of a divorce. My husband had some acreage before we married that has increased considerably in value in the last 7 years that we have been married. We live on that property and I am on the mobile home note. I am told I am not entitled to the increased value of the property and that money spent which was considerable on that property is a loss to me because I received the benefit. Is this so since I have no assets and everything I earned over the course of the marriage is tied up in that place?